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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 1, The Internal Audit Activity's Role in Governance, Risk, and Control)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 209 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following is not an appropriate role for internal auditors after a disaster occurs?
A. Monitor the effectiveness of the recovery and control of operations.
B. Correct deficiencies of the entity's business continuity plan.
C. Recommend future improvements to the entity's business continuity plan.
D. Assist in the identification of lessons learned from the disaster and the recovery operations.
Answer: B

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NO.2 According to the International Professional Practices Framework, internal auditors should
possess which of the following competencies?
I.Proficiency in applying internal auditing standards, procedures, and techniques.
II.Proficiency in accounting principles and techniques.
III.An understanding of management principles.
IV.An understanding of the fundamentals of economics, commercial law, taxation, finance, and
quantitative methods.
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. I and III only.
D. I, III, and IV only.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The top three sales representatives for a company consistently include non-allowable charges
on their expense reports. Line management is reluctant to deny reimbursement of the charges for
fear of losing the sales representatives. This situation has the greatest negative impact on which of
the following internal control components?
A. Monitoring.
B. Control environment.
C. Information and communication.
D. Control activities.
Answer: B

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NO.4 During the planning phase of an audit of suspected overbilling on contracts for security
services, an auditor should perform all of the following except:
A. Interviewing an official of the security services company to determine the cause of recent
increases in billings for services.
B. Interviewing the manager who requested the audit engagement.
C. Obtaining a copy of the contract between the two organizations.
D. Preparing an engagement program.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is an appropriate role for the board in governance?
A. Preparing written organizational policies that relate to compliance with laws, regulations, ethics,
and conflicts of interest.
B. Ensuring that financial statements are understandable, transparent, and reliable.
C. Assisting the internal audit activity in performing annual reviews of governance.
D. Working with the organization's attorneys to develop a strategy regarding current litigation,
pending litigation, or regulatory proceedings governance.
Answer: B

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NO.6 If an internal auditor discloses confidential information in response to a lawsuit, the internal
auditor has violated:
A. The IIA Code of Ethics.
B. The Standards.
C. Both the IIA Code of Ethics and the Standards.
D. Neither the IIA Code of Ethics nor the Standards.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following factors affects the control risk of a company?
A. Potential problems like technological obsolescence.
B. Unusual pressures on management.
C. Complex accounts that require expert valuations.
D. Segregation of duties.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Human resources and payroll are separate departments. Which of the following combinations
would provide the best segregation of duties?
A. Human resources personnel add employees, payroll personnel process hours, and human
resources personnel deliver paychecks to employees.
B. Human resources personnel add employees, review and submit payroll hours to the payroll
department for processing, and deliver paychecks to employees.
C. Human resources personnel add employees, and payroll personnel process hours and enter
employee bank account numbers. Paychecks are automatically deposited in the employee's bank
account.
D. Payroll personnel add employees and enter employee bank account numbers but process hours
only as approved by the human resources department. Paychecks are automatically deposited in the
employee's bank account.
Answer: C

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NO.9 An auditor plans to analyze customer satisfaction, including: (1) customer complaints
recorded by the customer service department during the last three months; (2) merchandise
returned in the last three months; and (3) responses to a survey of customers who made purchases
in the last three months. Which of the following statements regarding this audit approach is correct?
A. Although useful, such an analysis does not address any risk factors.
B. The survey would not consider customers who did not make purchases in the last three months.
C. Steps 1 and 2 of the analysis are not necessary or cost-effective if the customer survey is
comprehensive.
D. Analysis of three months' activity would not evaluate customer satisfaction.
Answer: B

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NO.10 According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is the
appropriate division of responsibilities for the coordination of internal and external audit efforts?
I. Oversight of Work Coordination of Activities Chief audit executive Senior management
II. Board Chief audit executive
III. Chief financial officer
Chief audit executive
IV. Board
Chief financial officer
A. I
B. II.
C. III.
D. IV.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following statements regarding segregation of duties is true?
A. When evaluating an organization's policy on segregation of duties, employee competence does
not need to be considered.
B. An organizational chart provides an accurate definition of segregation of duties.
C. A restrictive segregation-of-duties policy can help improve an organization's communication.
D. Policies on segregation of duties in information systems must recognize the difference between
logical and physical access to assets.
Answer: D

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NO.12 According to the Standards, the organizational status of the internal audit activity:
A. Must be sufficient to permit the accomplishment of its audit responsibilities.
B. Is best when the reporting relationship is direct to the board of directors.
C. Requires the board's annual approval of the audit schedules, plans, and budgets.
D. Is guaranteed when the charter specifically defines its independence.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following lists the audit activities in the order in which they would generally be
completed during a preliminary survey?
I.Write detailed audit procedures.
II.Identify client objectives, goals, and standards.
III.Identify risks and controls intended to prevent associated losses.
IV.Determine relevant engagement objectives.
A. II, I, IV, III.
B. II, III, IV, I.
C. III, IV, II, I.
D. II, IV, I, III.
Answer: B

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NO.14 An internal auditor is reviewing a new automated human resources system. The system
contains a table of pay rates which are matched to the employee job classifications. The best control
to ensure that the table is updated correctly for only valid pay changes would be to:
A. Limit access to the data table to management and line supervisors who have the authority to
determine pay rates.
B. Require a supervisor in the department, who does not have the ability to change the table, to
compare the changes to a signed management authorization.
C. Ensure that adequate edit and reasonableness checks are built into the automated system.
D. Require that all pay changes be signed by the employee to verify that the change goes to a bona
fide employee.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A high-volume retailer of consumer goods has used point-of-sale data to record sales and
update inventory records for several years. When price changes are scheduled, corporate
headquarters downloads a price change file to a computer server system at each store. Each store's
assistant manager is responsible for checking the server for downloads and running the program
that updates the store's price file at the authorized price update time. In comparison with having
headquarters initiate the price update centrally, this approach to price updating will most likely:
A. Decrease the risk that customers will be undercharged consistently for sales items.
B. Decrease the risk that item prices will sometimes be inaccurate.
C. Increase the risk that customers will be undercharged consistently for sales items.
D. Increase the risk that item prices will sometimes be inaccurate.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ICGB
Exam Name: IASSC (IASSC Certified Lean Six Sigma Green Belt)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 200 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A Lean Principle that addresses efficiency by the process worker is called
____________________?
A. Visual Factory
B. Supervising
C. Training
D. Standardizing
Answer: D

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NO.2 The use of Kanbans work best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products
or
services are produced.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 As part of a Visual Factory plan __________ cards are created and utilized to identify areas in
need of cleaning and organization.
A. Kanban
B. Kaizen
C. Poke-Yoke
D. WhoSai
Answer: A

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NO.4 The use of station warning lights, tool boards and jidohka devices in the application of Lean
accomplish which of these principles?
A. Pilferage Minimization
B. Visual Factory
C. Management Awareness
D. Operator Attentiveness
Answer: B

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NO.5 Significant variation in process performance is a consequence of several causes that can be
classified using which of the terminologies shown. (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
A. Common
B. Random
C. Uneducated
D. Special
E. Vital
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 While management of a company must set the stage for all improvement efforts, which of
these
5S’s is primarily driven by management?
A. Straighten
B. Sort
C. Shine
D. Sustain
Answer: D

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NO.7 When it comes to Control one of the most effective means of eliminating defects is to
_________________ .
A. Train personnel often and thoroughly
B. Keep a Six Sigma project going on the process at all times
C. Design defect prevention into the product
D. Have each process consist of no more than five steps
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Lean Principle action in the 5S approach that deals with having those items needed
regularly
at hand and those items need less regularly stored out of the way is known as ___________.
A. Shining
B. Standardizing
C. Sustaining
D. Sorting
Answer: D

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NO.9 When a Belt applies the practice of Poka-Yoke to a project challenge she is attempting to make
certain the activity is _______________ .
A. Well documented
B. Removed from the line
C. Mistake proofed
D. Highly visible
Answer: C

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NO.10 SPC on the outputs is more preferred than SPC on the inputs when implementing SPC for your
process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CCA-410
Exam Name: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop CDH4)
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Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster's block size storage parameters once you set the
HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by removing the
NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services of an active
NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a cluster
administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple, independent
NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to copy data
between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what's the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
Answer: E,F

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NO.7 What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the DataNode
is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PEGACSSA
Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC v5.5 Certified Senior System Architect Exam)
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Total Q&A: 173 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data from an
external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. What is the
recommended way to ensure the agent only runs in one cluster? (Choose One)
A. Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes
B. Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or using the
System Management Application
C. Disable the master agent on two nodes
D. In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the system (application)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which methods of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose
Two)
A. BPEL
B. HTTP
C. JMS
D. MQ
E. dotNet
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which one of the following statements is true regarding the PRPC threading model? (Choose One)
A. PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and
OPENPORTAL
B. A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to have separate clipboard pages
that do not interact with each other
C. Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on whether multi-threading is enabled
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans. Which of these
platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two)
A. JBoss (EAR Deployment)
B. WebLogic (WAR Deployment)
C. WebSphere (EAR Deployment)
D. Tomcat (WAR Deployment)
E. All of the above
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose One)
A. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and the access group
the current user belongs to
B. The RuleSet the class belongs, and Data-Admin-DB-Table definitions
C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
D. The RuleSet the class belongs to
Answer: C

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NO.6 When a rule executes what is really executed.? (Choose One)
A. XML which is stored in the BLOB
B. Java code which is compiled from the XML stored in the BLOB
C. A class file which is stored in the BLOB
D. A serialized java object which is stored in the BLOB
Answer: B

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NO.7 Why does PRPC create a Data-Agent-Queue instance when you create a Rule-Agent-Queue instance?
(Choose One)
A. Data-Agent-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a
locked RuleSet at runtime
B. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue For Agent functionality
which was provided since PRPC v5.4
C. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenever the Queue-For-Agent
method is used in an activity step to queue work for the Agent
D. Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue Manager functionality to
allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running on multiple nodes
E. Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have been
deprecated as of PRPC v5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue
Answer: A

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NO.8 Select the valid modes an Agent can have since PRPC 5.4? (Choose Three)
A. Normal
B. Legacy
C. Standard
D. Advanced
E. Modes are not required to be selected for Agents in PRPC 5.4
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the
instance. Which two statements are false? (Choose Two)
A. Since it is a column in a table in a database, you can extract the BLOB and use it in another system
B. The BLOB contains the same clear text xml you see when clicking the rule data or the View XML option
in the clipboard
C. The PzPVStream
can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and
page lists)
D. The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structures that would normally require multiple
tables in a normalized database
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two)
A. Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods
B. Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The only way you can do a
rollback is by using the compensating actions method
C. Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object
D. Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three)
A. It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a
Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified
B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table
C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
E. It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so that performance analysis can
be performed over a period of time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is
not yet available? (Choose Four)
A. Create a Simulation activity
B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
C. Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
D. Define a Connect Simulation instance
E. Test the flow with simulation enabled
F. Create a new Integrator task
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.13 Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three)
A. Rule Cache
B. Rules Assembly Cache
C. Rule Resolution Cache
D. Lookup List Cache
E. Static Content Cache
F. Dictionary Cache
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration. Which of the following does NOT require an
EAR configuration? (Choose One)
A. JMS message services support need to be provided
B. Support for two-phase commits is required
C. Support for EJB services need to be provided
D. J2EE security is required
E. JSR-94 support is required
Answer: E

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NO.15 PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various caches is stored on each
node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the
update process? (Choose One)
A. Node-Pulse
B. Rule Cache
C. System-Update
D. System-Pulse
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose One)
A. By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
B. By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
C. The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of its covered work objects
because updates occur on the cover throughout processing of the covered work objects
D. Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it is only locked when it is opened
by a requestor
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which statement best describes the Rules Assembly Cache? (Choose One)
A. The Rules Assembly Cache is a disk based cache that stores the generated XML and resulting class
files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML, not java code
B. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that reduces PegaRULES database traffic as it
contains copies of rules recently accessed or recently updated by developers
C. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that allows Process Commander to rapidly
identify compiled Java CLASS files that correspond to compiled and assembled rules
D. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache used by PRPC to feed the Instance Cache as
the Instance Cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated
Answer: C

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NO.18 What purpose and effect does the Obj-Refresh-and-Lock method have? (Choose One)
A. It has no effect if a lock is held and has not expired
B. It will reacquire a lock and will always refresh the contents of the object from the Database
C. If the lock is not held, the method will acquire a lock and always replace the step page contents with
the current values from the database
D. This method has been deprecated as of PRPC 5.3 in support of the Obj-Browse method which handles
refresh and locking automatically
E. This method is highly efficient and will only refresh the object if the content on the clipboard is older
than the current state in the database and will also force lockthe object regardless ofholds the lock
Answer: A

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NO.19 Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose One)
A. Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an
Excel file
B. Using the Developer Portal you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the
form of an excel file and is accessed from the tools > instance cache menu
C. By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory
D. By viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by using JDBC code
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which statements in regards to commits in PRPC are false? (Choose Two)
A. All database updates require that the requestor holds a lock on the object
B. The system performs commits automatically when processing for a submit operation of a flow action
completes, for both connector and local flow actions
C. Commit operations can trigger the execution of Declare-Trigger rules
D. Assuming distributed transaction is not configured and the deferred operation list contains operations
for only one database. When the system commits all deferred operations for the requestor, if any of the
writes fail, they all fail
E. The deferred operations will be committed when you use the write-now option with the obj-save
method because this causes a commit to occur
Answer: A,E

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NO.1 When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One)
A. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process
B. When you wish to make a long-running SOAP service call asynchronously
C. When you wish to start another flow execution while continuing down the current process path
D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules concurrently
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have been asked to build a human resources application that facilitates the work required
to
support new hires. For each new hire, multiple tasks must be done, such as "Acquire Computer"
and "Setup Payroll". You are having trouble deciding if each of these tasks should be represented
as separate assignments in the same case, or separate sub-cases. Which of the following
requirements will help you decide on the approach? (Choose Two)
A. It must be possible for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" to be assigned to different
operators at the same time
B. It must be possible for the completion of one task to be independent from the other
C. It must be possible to edit fields for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" at the same time
D. It must be possible to configure security differently; those who can open "Acquire Computer"
must not be able to open "Setup Payroll"
E. "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" require the capability to be reopened independently
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 A rule is shown in the Final Conflicts report after doing an upgrade. Which of the following
describe what could be done to resolve the conflict? (Choose Two)
A. The rule could be marked Final
B. The rule could be deleted or Withdrawn so that the standard version of the rule is executed
C. Do a SaveAs on the conflicting rule to a new name and update references to this new rule
D. The rule could be copied into the production RuleSet
E. The corresponding RuleSet could be locked
F. The rule could be copied into a more specific class
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 An application administrator has been sent a number of complaints that after nightly server
restarts the PRPC application is slow in the early morning. Which of the following actions can be
used to mitigate this issue? (Choose One)
A. Enable Assembly Avoidance
B. Restart System Pulse
C. Configure and execute Static Assembler
D. Increase the size of the Rule Cache
Answer: C

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NO.5 A work type MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Request has a PageList property .LineItems of class
MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
Another work type, MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Order has a PageList property .ItemsForVendor
of class MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
An item has a calculation .TotalPrice = .Quantity * .UnitPrice.
The application is experiencing behavior where the TotalPrice is calculating correctly for Requests
but not for Orders. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue? (Choose
One)
A. The expression is likely defined as a context-sensitive expression ("only when the top level
page is of the applies to class")
B. The expression is likely defined as backward chaining
C. The expression is likely defined as a context-free expression ("regardless of any page it is
contained in")
D. The expression is likely defined as forward chaining
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which TWO additional structure-based test design techniques could be used to dynamically
test the code? 1 credit [K2]
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 The Bonus Program is perceived by management to be critical. Defects in the program would
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implement review based on IEEE 1028. Knowledge and skills on both formal and informal reviews
are available. There is also an existing pool of review leaders. Which of the following review types
would you choose to review the program? 2 credits [K4]
A. Informal review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Management review
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which additional set of test cases is needed to achieve both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage? 3 credits [K3]
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.4 The application of multiple condition testing is also being considered.
Which specification-based technique is largely based on the principle of multiple condition testing?
1 credit [K2]
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. State Transition Testing
C. Decision Table Testing
D. Use Cases
Answer: C

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NO.5 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% condition
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A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the value of statement coverage achieved by test case 1 from test set A? 2 credits [K3]
A. ? 75% (21 / 28)
B. ? 78% (22 / 28)
C. ? 85% (24 / 28)
D. ? 90% (25 / 28)
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have tested the program and have found that with "bonus" a boundary value has not
been implemented according to design. You have written an incident report. Which of the following
is the incident report of the highest quality? 2 credits [K3]
A. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester:
WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
B. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: Medium Tester: WVU
Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program")
C. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus (line 26: 10 according to design,
now 5 implemented) Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification
"bonus program"), V1.2
D. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: High Repeatability: Yes
Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
Answer: C

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NO.8 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% multiple
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A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
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NO.1 Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?
A. Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision making
B. Participants understand each other's roles and needs
C. Stakeholders are not involved in assuring the project work
D. All problems are escalated to all stakeholders
Answer: A

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NO.2 Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A principle of PRINCE2 is that a project
has defined and agreed?
A. Roles and responsibilities
B. Specialist teams with appropriate technical skills
C. Management jobs with job descriptions
D. Senior managers at all levels of the project management team
Answer: A

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NO.3 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. Third party
B. Customer/Supplier
C. Fixed-price contract
D. Management and Specialist
Answer: B

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NO.4 Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence. A project is a temporary
organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according
to an agreed?
A. Senior User
B. Business Case
C. Change
D. Cost
Answer: B

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NO.5 Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project is and controlled on
a stage-by-stage basis?
A. Planned, monitored
B. Developed, reported
C. Designed, assigned
D. Planned, produced
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which is a characteristic of a project?
A. Are risk free
B. Have no uncertainty
C. Are managed as part of business as usual
D. Are cross-functional
Answer: D

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NO.7 Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project focuses on the
definition and delivery of, in particular their quality requirements?
A. Benefits
B. Products
C. Activities
D. Outcomes
Answer: B

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NO.8 Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project has defined for each
project objective to establish limits of delegated authority?
A. Allowances
B. Tolerances
C. Roles
D. Deviations
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which PRINCE2 principle supports planning only to a level of detail that is manageable and
foreseeable?
A. Continued business justification
B. Manage by exception
C. Focus on products
D. Manage by stages
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed?
A. Issues
B. People
C. Benefit
D. Tolerance
Answer: C

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NO.11 A characteristic of a project is that they come with an element of uncertainty. Which of the
following PRINCE2 themes will help with the identification and management of such uncertainty?
A. Quality
B. Risk
C. Change
D. Organization
Answer: B

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NO.12 According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the aspects of project performance to be
managed?
A. Processes, themes, principles
B. Time, cost, quality, people
C. Time, cost, quality
D. Time, cost, quality, scope, benefits, risk
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which is NOT a PRINCE2 integrated element?
A. The principles
B. The techniques
C. The themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Manage risks is a PRINCE2 principle
B. Manage by exception is a PRINCE2 principle
C. Focus on products is a PRINCE2 principle
D. Tailor to suit the project environment is a PRINCE2 principle
Answer: A

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NO.15 According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a characteristic of a project compared to that
of business operations?
A. Incurs cost
B. Introduces business change
C. Delivers benefits
D. Creates products
Answer: B

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