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Exam Code: ASC-090
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC IT Compliance 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A company is receiving "disk full" errors on the volume hosting the RMS Information server database.
They are running native RMS queries and saving the historical reports. What is the process for deleting
outdated RMS historical data sets?
A. from the Control Compliance Suite Console, under the System > General > Data Purge menu,
configure the Purge Settings to run a data purge job
B. from the RMS console, run an RMS Query using the "Show Advanced Data Sources" option, and use
Active Admin to delete historical data
C. on the Information server, stop the BVProcessManager Service, then stop and restart the SQL Server
Service, then restart the BVProcessManager Service
D. on the Information server, stop all RMS Services, and then use the Microsoft command-line tool
"OSQL.EXE" to purge the "QUERY_RESULTS" table
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator sees the following in the agent log: ERROR [Logging]
com.symantec.management.security. HostnameVerificationFailureException SESA Agent
Symc_ConfigProvider: Failed to bootstrap to primary management server https: What are two reasons for
this? (Select two.)
A. The name resolution is not working.
B. Agent failed to download the SSL certificate.
C. There is a hostname mismatch with the SSL certificate.
D. Another host with same hostname is already registered.
E. Bootstrapping is disabled on the Information Manager.
Answer: A, E

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NO.3 In Control Compliance Suite (CCS) Reporting and Analytics, where do administrators add content for
new regulations not already included?
A. from the CCS Console, in "Manage > Polices" select "New Regulation"
B. in Content Studio, choose "Mandates", right-click, and then choose "New Regulation"
C. New regulations cannot be added to Reporting and Analytics.
D. from a SQL script, write an INSERT statement to create the new content on the SQL Database Server
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company reports that Windows Data Collection jobs using the RMS data collector never complete.
UNIX Data Collection jobs complete normally. The administrator suspects that one of the Slave Query
Engines might be failing to respond. Which troubleshooting step should be used to determine which Slave
Query Engine might be hanging?
A. from the RMS Console, log in under the Data Processor Service Account, and check the "Task Status"
screen
B. on the Information server, review the Application log
C. in bv-Config, check the "Query Engine Diagnostics- Master" for Slave Query Engine job statuses
D. in the Control Compliance Suite Console, on the Settings > System Topology Menu, Choose "Monitor
System Jobs"
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) administrator has written a simple Perl script to
convert HEX format to a dotted decimal number to aid forensic analysis of attack packets recorded by the
Network Intrusion Detection system. They have used this script in a user action. However, the user action
is failing. What is the problem?
A. Only shell scripts are supported for custom user actions.
B. Perl interpreter is not installed on the Archive Server.
C. Only Java scripts are supported for custom user action.
D. Perl interpreter is not installed on the SSIM client machine.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ASC-093
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.2 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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NO.3 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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NO.4 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.5 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.7 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.9 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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NO.10 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-097
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.4 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.7 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.11 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.12 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.17 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-132
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Where are options for backup and restore of Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 located?
A.Administration -> Version
B.Administration -> Configuration
C.Administration -> Control Center
D.Administration -> Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator tests the default antivirus policies by sending a message with an encrypted
attachment.
When the administrator checks the recipient inbox, what appears?
A.The test email appears with a modified subject line.
B.A system-generated message appears concerning an unscannable attachment.
C.A pointer to the Suspect Virus Quarantine appears.
D.The email is missing due to deletion by the system.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is running out of disk space due to storing extended logs.The
administrator is required to store extended log data for more than a year.Which action should the
administrator take?
A.Lower the maximum log storage limit.
B.Increase the Messaging Gateway server threads.
C.Configure remote logging.
D.Delete messages from the queue.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Before performing a software update on a scanner-only appliance, which MTA operation/mode should
be chosen if there are messages in the queues?
A.Stop the MTA.
B.Accept and deliver messages normally.
C.Pause message scanning and delivery.
D.Do not accept incoming messages.
Answer: D

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NO.5 An employee reports that a message sent to a customer was rejected.The employee provides
sufficient information for the administrator to find the message using the Message Audit log.The employee
wants to know why that message was blocked.Which section of the Message Audit Log detail page would
provide this information?
A.Verdict
B.Message Header
C.Tracker
D.Destination
Answer: A

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NO.6 A diagnostics package for a scanner-only appliance can be generated from the GUI in Symantec
Messaging Gateway 9.5.If the package is small (less than 5 MB), which transfer protocol type should be
used by the administrator to verify the diagnostics package before providing it to technical support for
analysis?
A.email to administrator
B.download to desktop
C.FTP
D.SCP
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A.when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B.when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C.when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D.when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E.when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.8 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists?
(Select two.)
A.Add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains.
B.Check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group".
C.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions.
D.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions.
E.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions.
Answer: B, E

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NO.9 A company uses multiple control centers.What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A.Configure the same seed value on each control center.
B.Configure different seed values on each control center.
C.Configure the same seed value on each scanner.
D.Configure different seed values on each scanner.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What happens if a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner is behind another internal messaging
gateway?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might quarantine all mail from the internal gateway MTA if
DKIM is disabled.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might identify the IP address of the internal gateway MTA as a
source of spam.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will trust all mail from the internal gateway MTA.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will grant the internal gateway MTA a Fastpass.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which Directory Data Source function must be configured to enable end-user spam quarantine?
A.SMTP authentication
B.address resolution
C.recipient validation
D.authentication
Answer: D

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NO.12 A message released from Spam Quarantine is delivered to the intended recipient.Under the default
configuration, where is a copy of the misidentified message also sent?
A.intended recipient's manager
B.Symantec Security Response
C.Administrator@localhost
D.Admin@localhost
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-132   ST0-132   ST0-132 test answers   ST0-132 original questions

NO.13 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware devices?
A.Symantec 2950 series appliances
B.Symantec 3570 series appliances
C.Symantec 7100 series appliances
D.Symantec 8300 series appliances
Answer: B

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NO.14 How could an administrator filter email more aggressively by adjusting the suspected spam score?
A.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 99.
B.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 60.
C.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 24.
D.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 91.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Message throughput of a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner-only appliance can be reduced by
which two features? (Select two.)
A.rapid release definitions
B.real-time updates
C.DKIM signing
D.SMTP authentication
E.hourly quarantine expunging
Answer: C, D

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NO.16 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec Messaging
Gateway 9.5?
A.store backup on local server
B.store backup on a remote location using FTP
C.encrypt local backup
D.purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.17 An administrator recently investigated the debug logs for Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 and
resolved an issue.A few days later the administrator discovers that the disk storage is filling up
quickly.What is the likely cause?
A.Real-time update level is turned up.
B.Local log level is turned up.
C.Active user data is turned up.
D.Remote log level is turned up.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which prerequisite must be met to take advantage of the Connection Classification and Fastpass
features?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway must use a virtual IP address.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured with two network interfaces.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be the first SMTP hop into the network.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured in scanner-only mode.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A.Dynamic Data Cache
B.Directory Data Service
C.Data Directory Tool
D.LDAP Directory Service
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the default time period that a suspect virus can reside in the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.2 hours
B.4 hours
C.6 hours
D.8 hours
Answer: C

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NO.1 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.2 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be
installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.3 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

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NO.5 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. Break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. Configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. Select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. Add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

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NO.7 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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NO.16 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: A,D,E

Symantec   250-310   250-310 original questions   250-310

NO.17 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.19 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.21 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.22 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each
group. How many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in
the environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.23 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.24 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.25 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.26 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.27 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.29 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: C,D,E

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Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.10 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.11 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-192
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Technical Foundations:Security Solutions 2.0 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 An employee has become disgruntled with their employer, a payroll software manufacturer,
and one of
the employee's friends works for a competitor.
The employee copies some highly-confidential source code to a USB drive and gives the USB drive to
their friend after work.
Which source(s) of a breach are involved in this scenario?
A. malicious insider only
B. organized criminal only
C. malicious insider and organized criminal
D. well-meaning insider and malicious insider
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the three types of scans used to identify systems?
A. port, network, and vulnerability
B. protocol, hardware, and services
C. port, network, and protocol
D. hardware, network, and vulnerability
Answer: A

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NO.3 A cybercriminal wants to maintain future access to a compromised system.
Which tool would the cybercriminal use to accomplish this?
A. rootkit
B. keylogger
C. backdoor
D. trojan
Answer: C

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NO.4 Why would a cybercriminal avoid using a trojan in a widespread attack?
A. trojans are easily caught by antivirus products
B. end-users are aware of clicking on non-trusted executables
C. trojans only infect one system at a time
D. execution of trojans are dependent on the operating system
Answer: C

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NO.5 The security team of a major government agency discovers a breach involving employee data
that has
been leaked outside the agency. They discover that a software developer for the agency transferred
employee data from a secure primary system to a secondary system, for the purpose of software
development and testing. This secondary system was the target of a hacker.
Which type of breach source(s) is this?
A. cybercriminal only
B. malicious insider and cybercriminal
C. cybercriminal and well-meaning insider
D. well-meaning insider only
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which global trade is determined by the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) to
be
smaller than the global market for illegally-obtained information, according to the Security Solutions
2.0
course.?
A. illegal drug trade
B. arms trafficking trade
C. human trafficking trade
D. money laundering trade
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which method does the MetaFisher bot use to extract data from a system?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. peer to peer
D. IRC
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which group is the number one source of IT security attacks according to the Symantec
research
shared in the Security Solutions 2.0 course?
A. malicious outsiders
B. organized criminals
C. well-meaning insiders
D. malicious insiders
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 310-066
Exam Name: SUN (Upgrade EXAM for the Sun Certified for Java Programmer.SE6.0)
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Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Given:
3. import java.util.*;
4. public class Hancock {
5. // insert code here

NO.2 Given:
11. public class Test {
12. public enum Dogs {collie, harrier, shepherd};
13. public static void main(String [] args) {
14. Dogs myDog = Dogs.shepherd;
15. switch (myDog) {
16. case collie:
17. System.out.print("collie ");
18. case default:
19. System.out.print("retriever ");
20. case harrier:
21. System.out.print("harrier ");
22. }
23. }
24. }
What is the result?
A.harrier
B.shepherd
C.retriever
D.Compilation fails.
E.retriever harrier
F.An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer:D

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NO.3 A UNIX user named Bob wants to replace his chess program with a new one, but he is not sure where
the old one is installed. Bob is currently able to run a Java chess program starting from his home directory
/home/bob using the command:
java -classpath /test:/home/bob/downloads/*.jar games.Chess
Bob's CLASSPATH is set (at login time) to:/usr/lib:/home/bob/classes:/opt/java/lib:/opt/java/lib/*.jarWhat is
a possible location for the Chess.class file?
A./test/Chess.class
B./home/bob/Chess.class
C./test/games/Chess.class
D./usr/lib/games/Chess.class
E./home/bob/games/Chess.class
F.inside jarfile /opt/java/lib/Games.jar (with a correct manifest)
G.inside jarfile /home/bob/downloads/Games.jar (with a correct manifest)
Answer:C

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NO.4 }
Which two code fragments, inserted independently at line 5, will compile without warnings? (Choose two.)
A.public void addStrings(List list) {B.public void addStrings(List list) {C.public void addStrings(List list)
{D.public void addStrings(List list) {
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Given:
21. class Money {
22. private String country = "Canada";
23. public String getC() { return country; }
24. }
25. class Yen extends Money {
26. public String getC() { return super.country; }
27. }
28. public class Euro extends Money {
29. public String getC(int x) { return super.getC(); }
30. public static void main(String[] args) {
31. System.out.print(new Yen().getC()+ " " + new Euro().getC());
32. }
33. }
What is the result?
A.Canada
B.null Canada
C.Canada null
D.Canada Canada
E.Compilation fails due to an error on line 26.
F.Compilation fails due to an error on line 29.
Answer:E

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NO.6 list.add("foo");

NO.7 }

NO.8 Given:
10. interface Foo {}
11. class Alpha implements Foo {}
12. class Beta extends Alpha {}
13. class Delta extends Beta {
14. public static void main( String[] args ) {
15. Beta x = new Beta();
16. // insert code here
17. }
18. }
Which code, inserted at line 16, will cause a java.lang.ClassCastException?
A.Alpha a = x;
B.Foo f = (Delta)x;
C.Foo f = (Alpha)x;
D.Beta b = (Beta)(Alpha)x;
Answer:B

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