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Exam Code: 1Z0-508
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g General Ledger Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 127 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The Receivables and Payables accounts that are automatically generated by intercompany
transactions use rules and attributes in what order?
A. Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules; Ledger Level Rules;Chart of
Account Rules
B. Ledger entity Level Rules; ledger Level Rules; Chart of Account Rules; Primary Balancing
Segment Rules
C. Chart of Account Rules; Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules; Ledger
Level Rules
D. Ledger Level Rules;Primary Balancing Segment Rules;Ledger Entity Level Rules; Chart of
Accounts Rules
E. Chart of Account Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules, Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger
Level Rules
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are NOT included in the intercompany reconciliation reports?
A. Clearing company balancing lines
B. Intercompany receivables and intercompany lines generated by the intercompany balancing
feature
C. Intercompany receivables and Intercompany payables lines generated for the provider and
receiver of each intercompany transaction
D. Ledger balancing lines generated when the primary balancing segment value is in balance
butneither the second balancing segment northird balancing segment is out of balance; clearing
company balancing lines
Answer: A

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NO.3 Choose the two Oracle Hyperion Reporting and Analysis products and artifacts, that can be
imported into financial Reporting.
A. Dynamic Report (* .des)
B. Impact Manage Transformation Scripts (*. Js)
C. Snapshot Reports (*.rpt)
D. Books. (*.kbk)
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 XYZ Company has two departments: Marketing and Finance. The Finance Department has two
Functional divisions: receivables and payables. Select the flow for establishing hierarchy.
A. Hierarchy between functional divisions only
B. Hierarchy between departments only
C. Hierarchy between the organization and its departments, and between the departments and
their respective functional divisions
D. hierarchy between the organization and its departments and functional divisions only
Answer: C

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NO.5 Identify two INVALID features of POV in Financial Reporting Studio.
A. Multiple grids cannot be Included in a report.
B. To identify that a dimension is set for grid POV, text row foot note should be added for a
gridPOV for a dimension.
C. A memberselection function with CurrentPOV as the member parameter changes to a User
POV when members are selected from a row, column or page axis on a grid.
D. POV book is specific to any report or grid object in report in that book.
E. All POVs allow a single member to be set for a dimension.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 When reconciling transactions, accounted amounts in a reconciliation report may be different
due
to differences in the currency conversion rates used. To mitigate the differences in the account
balances you should ____________.
A. Run the report using an additional common currency conversion rate
B. Run additional reports using a number of varied currency conversion rates
C. Add a ledger-balancing line in the intercompany Receivables account and rerun the report
D. Add a ledger-balancing line in the intercompany Payables account and rerun the report
Answer: D

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NO.7 During the analysis phase of the implementation, it was discovered that there were some
expense
entries that are paid in the current month for services rendered in the next month, the client wants
to defer the expense and recognize it in the next month. What would you recommend?
A. Create two accounting events: one for payment and one for recognition.
B. Use Account Derivation rules to create two different entries.
C. Use multiperiod accounting-enabled Journal Line Types.
D. Use Journal Line Definitions.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Where do you perform real-time, ad hoc queries from a data warehouse?
A. General Accounting and Journals dashboards
B. Oracle Transaction Business Intelligence
C. Oracle Business Intelligence Analytics
D. Account Monitory and Account Inspector
Answer: D

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NO.9 An invoice with two lines is entered, later that day an adjustment is made to the invoice to add
another line. At the end of the day, the invoice is sent to the Fusion Accounting Hub. How many
events would you create?
A. Twoevents: one for invoice creation and one for the adjustment
B. Oneeventforinvoice creation; adjustment happened before transaction sent to the Fusion
Accounting Hub
C. Threeevents: one for invoice creation and two for line creation
D. Fourevents: one for invoice creation, one each for the two lines arid one for the adjustment
Answer: B

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NO.10 Identify the option that needs to be selected at the header level when assigning a header
level
subledger Journal Rule Set.
A. Accounting Date
B. Description
C. Supporting Reference
D. Ledger
E. Currency
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1z0-506
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g Accounts Receivable Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The collections Manager runs the Determine Delinquency Using Scoring program to identify
delinquent transitions. She wants to know the status of a particular transaction. On which tab she
will find the status.
A. Customer Aging tab
B. Transaction Details tab
C. Transactions tab
D. Transaction aging tab
Answer: C

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NO.2 Select three values that default from Customer Profile Classes.
A. Currency
B. Legal Entity
C. Payment Terms
D. Statement Cycle
E. Business Purpose
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 You have created an Invoice with an incorrect unit price. You need to perform the Rebill task
from
the Manage Transactions user interface to enter the correct transaction. Which two actions does
the Manage Transactions user interface allow you to perform for the Rebill task?
A. Duplicate the original transaction.
B. Create a credit memo.
C. Incomplete the transaction.
D. Reverse the Transaction.
E. Correct the unit price.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Select three valid statements related to the Shared Service Model.
A. Shared Service Personnel can view Invoices across various business units.
B. Shared Service Personnel can do cross-business unit cash application.
C. Shared Service Personnel can process invoices for various business units.
D. Shared Service Personnel can see customer account details across business units.
E. Shared Service Personnel can report data across all business units but can enter transactions
ONLY against one business unit.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 The drilldown option available in the task pane for receipts does NOT include ____________.
A. Create Remittance via Spreadsheet
B. Correct Funds Transfer Errors
C. Lockbox Transmission History
D. Create Receipt via Spreadsheet
Answer: C

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6. You can click the manager Invoice Lines from the Billing Work Area to find Autoinvoice
Exceptions. What parameters are used to summarize the exceptions for review?
A. Business Unit, Transaction Type, Invoice Date, Currency
B. Business Unit, Customer Name, Transaction Source, Total Amount
C. Business Unit, Transaction Source, Creation Date, Currency
D. Business Unit, Transaction Source, Transaction Type, Creation Date
Answer: D

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7. Which functionality is NOT provided by the Receivables to Ledger Reconciliation Report?
A. Limiting the display using the ad hoc parameter
B. Drilldown to see reconciling details
C. Drilldown to see what needs to transfer and post to the general ledger
D. Graphical and visualization components for viewing the reconciliation details
E. The reasons for the reconciling differences
Answer: C

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8. A customer calls into the Accounts Receivables Department asking for the balance of all
invoices
due in the next 30 days and has a question about a specific invoice line. As a Billing Specialist
what action will you perform?
A. Review the invoice in the Review Customer Account Details user interface.
B. Apply, reverse, or process the receipt.
C. Create an open debit memo.
D. Review receipt-, in pending status
Answer: A

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9. The billing Specialist creates an adjustment for an INCORRECT invoice and sends it for approval
through the review and Manage Transaction link in the Billing Work Area. Since the adjustment
amount is above approval limit, it is routed to the Billing Manager. What is the status of the
Adjustment when the approver sees the adjustment in his Work Queue?
A. Pending Research
B. Pending Approval
C. Approval Required
D. Waiting Approval
Answer: D

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10. You are the Billing Manager and you are in charge of reviewing transactions and approving
them.
Which two tabs are available for your role in the Adjustments Overview Region on the Billing Work
Area page?
A. Pending My Approval
B. Pending Approval
C. Pending Approval from Others
D. Approved
E. Pending Research
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 1Z1-522
Exam Name: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne Financial Management 9.0 Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Your client wants to use the fastest method to enter high-volume, simple voucher entries.
What Voucher Entry would you recommend to your client to use?
A. Standard Voucher Entry
B. Voucher Logging Entry
C. Speed Voucher Entry
D. Multi-Voucher, Multi-Supplier
E. Multi-Company, Single-Supplier
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are going through the month end dose process. If you run the Account Balance
without Account Master Integrity report and have the processing option set to update
mode/ what do you update?
A. the business unit of all account ledger records that have an invalid business unit
number
B. the account description of ail account ledger records that have an invalid company
number
C. the company number of all account ledger records that have an invalid company
number
D. the company number of the account master records with the correct business unit
E. the company number of all account balance records that have an invalid company
number
Answer: D

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NO.3 The Supplier Analysis report shows Year to Date information that is inaccurate. Why is
this so?
A. The AP Annual Close has not been processed.
B. Your Data Selection in the Supplier Master report is incorrect.
C. The aging accounts are not set up in the A/P Constants.
D. The Beginning Year A/P and A/P period fields have not been updated In the Company
Numbers and Names.
E. The Supplier/Customer Totals by G/L Accounts report has not been run.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You were asked to create an allocation of all advertising expenses to all marketing
departments based on each individual marketing department's sales revenue. Assuming
that the advertising expense object accounts and sales revenue object accounts are within
one specified range, how will you most efficiently accomplish this allocation?
A. Use a Model Journal Entry
B. Use the Variable Numerator Allocation
C. Use the Recurring Journal Entry
D. Use the Indexed Allocation
E. Use a Variable Model
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your client would like to know if they should set up additional customer records or use
Line of Business processing. Why would you want to activate Line of Business processing?
A. To set up multiple sets SIC values for the customer.
B. To use a different default business unit for invoice entry.
C. To establish multiple Address Book records.
D. To establish a credit limit hierarchy by company.
E. To set up multiple sets of default information for the customer by company.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Your financial implementation client lead needs assistance on understanding the Detail
Method of Intercompany settlements. You explain that the Detail Method uses to
track Intercompany settlements and the company associated with the first journal entry
line acts as the for the transaction.
A. Subsidiaries, detail company
B. Subledger, hub company
C. Subledgers, consolidation company
D. Subledgers, detail company
E. Subsidiaries, hub company
Answer: C

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NO.7 What two ways can a user access the submitted jobs?
A. by entering 'BV' in the fastpath of a Web Client and selecting a form exit
B. by typing 'Jobs' in the fastpath of a Web Client D C) by selecting Submitted Jobs from
the menu
C. by taking a form exit from the Address Book
D. by selecting 'My System Profile' from the menu
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-597
Exam Name: Oracle (SPARC T4-Based Server Installation Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 dentify the three ways that integrated, no-chip networking improves network performance.
A. Eliminates I/O protocol translation inefficiencies
B. Reduces memory latency
C. Eliminates the need for multiple DMA (direct memory access) engines
D. Provides higher memory bandwidth
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 What is out-of-order execution?
A. A feature of certain processors, where instructions are processed based on the availability of data
B. A feature of certain multicore processors, where a core can be given processing priority over
other
cores
C. A memory architecture feature, where specific data can be delivered to processors at the fastest
possible rate
D. A feature of certain operating systems, where programs are executed based on the availability of
data
Answer: A

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NO.3 Activating Auto Service Request (ASR) Assets______.
A. is done on the Asset only
B. is done on both the Asset and the ASR Manager system
C. is done on the ASR Manager system only
D. is done on My Oracle Support only
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two tasks are required to install and configure Oracle VM Server for SPARC
Management
Information Base (MIB) software?
A. Install Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB software on the primary and guest domains
B. Install Oracle VM Sever for SPARC MIB software on the primary domain only
C. Load the Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB module into the Oracle Solaris SMA
D. Load the Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB module into the Oracle Solaris FMA
Answer: BC

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NO.5 What is the main objective of having Enterprise Installation Standards (EIS)?
A. To create a framework for tracking improperly installed systems
B. To produce consistent, high-quality installations
C. To produce systems optimized for Oracle software deployment
D. To create a framework for tracking properly installed systems
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z1-466
Exam Name: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.2 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.3 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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NO.5 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

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NO.6 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-466   1Z1-466
Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.8 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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NO.9 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which stereotype is used on a dashed arrow joining an instance value to a constructor?
A. <<new>>
B. <<make>>
C. <<create>>
D. <<construct>>
E. <<initialize>>
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
A. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
D. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
E. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An association class possesses the properties of which elements? (Choose two)
A. class
B. interface
C. constraint
D. expression
E. association
Answer: AE

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NO.4 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
D. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no
exception parameters declared?
A. ignored
B. handled by a default handler
C. appended to an exception log
D. sent to the "ExceptionManager" object
E. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
Answer: E

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NO.6 What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a particular aspect of a collaboration
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
D. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
Answer: D

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NO.7 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the correct interpretation for the multiplicities in the exhibit?
A. each Company has one Job, where each Job has one employee
B. each Job is for one employer and one employee, each Company has any number of employees and
each Person has any number of employers
C. each Person has at most one Job for any number of Company objects and each Company has at most
one Job for any number of Person objects
D. each Job has any number of employers and any number of employees, each Company has any
number of employees, and each Person has any number of employers
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. send a request to a port
B. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
C. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
D. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
Answer: C

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NO.10 What characteristics of components best enable them to be used to represent diverse and
"large-scale" aspects of information processing environments?
A. black-box semantics
B. ports, parts, and interfaces
C. duality of association ends and attributes
D. ownership of potentially large numbers of model elements
Answer: D

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NO.11 An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component
from his company's development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces
of the BoosterMotor component's specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose
two)
A. failure mode use cases
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component's isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which situations would result in errors when executing a ReclassifyObjectAction on an object?
(Choose two)
A. No new classifiers are supplied.
B. A new classifier is an abstract class.
C. The old and new classifiers are identical.
D. All classifiers are removed from the object.
E. A new classifier already classifies the object.
F. An old classifier does not already classify the object.
Answer: BD

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NO.13 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. AcceptCallAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: B

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NO.14 How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
B. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
C. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
Answer: D

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NO.15 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. eight
D. none
Answer: B

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NO.16 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. objects continue to exist
C. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.17 By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose
three)
A. import
B. inheritance
C. ownership
D. dependency
E. power types
F. association end subsets
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 Which action does NOT require classifiers as static inputs?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. CreateObjectAction
C. ReclassifyObjectAction
D. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
E. ReadIsClassifiedObjectAction
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which action can continue to be enabled after it executes?
A. ReplyAction
B. ReadExtentAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. BroadcastSignalAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is a power type?
A. classifier containing a very large number of instances
B. classifier whose instances are objects of another classifier
C. classifier whose instances are operations of another classifier
D. classifier whose instances are subclasses of another classifier
Answer: D

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NO.1 In which file do you configure time on a Linux server?
A.ntp.conf
B.init.conf
C.time.conf
D.tsync.conf
E.clock.conf
Correct:A

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NO.2 You are the network administrator for your company and are in charge of your company's
eDirectory design and implementation project. You have completed the project approach phase of
the eDirectory design cycle. Which tasks still need to be completed before you begin the
implementation phase? (Choose 2.)
A.Design the eDirectory tree
B.Fine-tune the eDirectory design
C.Determine accessibility needs
D.Plan a time synchronization strategy
E.Gather business information related to network design
Correct:A C

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NO.3 You have just finished executing a tree merge. Which tasks are left to complete the tree merge
process? (Choose 2.)
A.Correct bindery services commands.
B.Update workstation configurations.
C.Delete and re-create volume objects.
D.Restore the taped backup of the file system.
E.Verify trustee assignments to the file system.
Correct:A B

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NO.4 You have just created an eDirectory tree and installed 3 servers into the tree. The tree has one
partition. Server1, Server2, and Server3 were installed into the Corp container. Server2 crashed
and you removed it from the tree before you installed additional servers. The additional servers
installed in the tree were Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7. Server4 and Server5 were
installed into the Prod container. Server6 and Server7 were installed into the Acct container. The
Corp, Prod, and Acct containers are children of the tree root. The servers were placed in the tree
in the following order: Server4, Server5, Server6, Server7. You haven't had the chance to manually
add replicas to any server. Which servers hold replicas?
A.Server1 and Server3
B.Server1, Server3, and Server4
C.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server6
D.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server5
E.Server1, Server3, Server6, and Server7
F.Server1, Server3, Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7
Correct:B

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NO.5 You have completed a tree merge and want to confirm the new tree name by ensuring that all
servers in the tree are configured to support the new tree. Which utility will provide you the status
of every server in the tree and the name of the tree it is servicing?
A.DSMAINT
B.DSMERGE
C.DSREPAIR
D.ConsoleOne
E.NDS Manager
Correct:B

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NO.6 In which eDirectory objects do WAN traffic policies reside? (Choose 2.)
A.The Admin object
B.The Server object
C.The LAN Area object
D.Any container object
E.The partition root object
Correct:B C

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NO.7 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A.Master
B.Master and filtered
C.Master and read/only
D.Master and read/write
E.Master,read/write, and read-only
F.Master, read/write, and filtered
G.Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Correct:E

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NO.8 What does DSMERGE allow you to do?
A.Create replicas
B.Create partitions
C.Rename the eDirectory tree
D.Configure time synchronization
E.Rename objects within the eDirectory tree
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which statement is true of queue-based printing?
A.The print server object must be associated with a volume object.
B.The printer object must be associated with a print server object.
C.The print queue object must be associated with a print server object.
D.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container.
E.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container as the
corresponding server object.
Correct:B

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NO.10 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. Shown in the exhibit is a partition and
replica table, and a partitioned eDirectory tree. Which servers automatically receive a subordinate
reference of the PR partition?
A.Serv2, Serv5, and Serv6
B.Serv2, Serv4, and Serv6
C.Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
D.Serv2, Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
E.Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6
Correct:C

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NO.11 Your company has 15 sites connected by a WAN link to corporate headquarters. Corporate
headquarters has 50 servers and each of the 15 sites has 30 servers. You are implementing a
multiple time provider group time synchronization strategy. Which are considerations you should
make before implementing this strategy? (Choose 2.)
A.If possible, create local time providers.
B.There will be a single point of failure at each location.
C.You cannot exceed 7 primary time servers in your network.
D.Make sure each reference server will synchronize with the same external source.
E.The single reference time synchronization strategy will provide a better strategy for this network
structure.
Correct:A D

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NO.12 You are getting ready to merge 2 eDirectory trees. What should be done before attempting to
merge trees? (Choose 2.)
A.Back up both eDirectory trees.
B.Rename the Admin user object in the target tree.
C.Remove the source server from all replica rings.
D.Use DSREPAIR to update the schema so it is the same on both servers.
E.Rename the first level container objects in both trees to be identical.
Correct:A D

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NO.13 What does the following WAN Traffic Manager policy control? TCPIP, NA
A.Prevents background traffic generated by TCP/IP
B.Prevents background traffic unless the traffic is generated by TCP/IP
C.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic is in the same TCP/IP network area
D.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic comes from a different TCP/IP network area
Correct:B

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NO.14 Which DNS/DHCP object contains resource record sets for DNS root servers?
A.DNS Zone object
B.DNS Group object
C.DNS Locator object
D.DNS Name Server object
E.RootSrvrInfo Zone object
Correct:E

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NO.15 What does WAN Traffic Manager control? (Choose 2.)
A.Events initiated by administrators or users
B.Server-to-server traffic generated by eDirectory
C.Server-to-server traffic generated by time synchronization
D.The amount of eDirectory traffic based on cost of traffic and time of day
E.Which servers the master replica server synchronizes to by using configured lists
Correct:B D

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NO.16 What is a good recommendation to follow when designing partitions for lower layers in the tree?
A.Create a partition for each container.
B.Partition the Directory by function regardless of location.
C.Use organizational divisions and workgroups to define lower-level partitions.
D.Place all servers, including servers at different locations, in the same partition.
E.Partition the Directory with more partitions at the top and fewer partitions at lower-levels.
Correct:C

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NO.17 A secondary server is not synchronized with a single reference time server. During the next
polling process, what percent of the time difference does the secondary time server adjust?
A.0%
B.16%
C.25%
D.50%
E.75%
F.100%
Correct:F

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NO.18 Perform the following drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When
you finish, continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. Listed are administrator
roles and their characteristics. Drag the administrator role to its characteristic.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2

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NO.19 After you create object naming standards, what should be defined for the attribute standards?
(Choose 2.)
A.Which object types require attributes
B.Whether the attribute of an object is required
C.Whether the attribute of an object is purgeable
D.Whether the attribute of an object is unique from other object attributes
E.Whether the attribute of an object is a system attribute that is automatically populated by eDirectory
Correct:B E

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NO.20 You are implementing an NDPS printing environment. Where is it recommended to place the
NDPS print manager object in the eDirectory tree?
A.Next to user objects
B.Next to the NDPS printer object
C.In the same container where the server object resides
D.At least one level higher than the printers it manages
E.In the same container as the user object that has administrative rights to manage it
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 050-695
Exam Name: Novell (Novell eDirectory Design and Implementation:eDirectory 8.8)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What tasks are helpful in completing a needs analysis when designing an eDirectory tree?
(Choose 2.)
A.Gather information about network connectivity
B.Gather information about resources that users access
C.Gather information to decide on a replica placement strategy
D.Gather information to estimate the time for each phase of design
E.Gather information to decide which server should be the time provider
Correct:A B

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NO.2 What is the most important design consideration when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Partition and replica plan
B.Time synchronization strategy
C.Number of objects in the tree
D.Number of servers in the tree
E.Physical network infrastructure
Correct:E

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NO.3 What is a part of analyzing user needs when creating an accessibility needs analysis document?
A.Design a strategy for mobile users.
B.Specify ZENworks object configurations.
C.Specify security rights to particular objects.
D.Gather information related to physical network resource needs.
E.Create guidelines that determine how eDirectory objects are used to create the user environment.
Correct:D

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NO.4 Which of the following is most important to consider when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Time synchronization strategy
B.Number of objects in the tree
C.Number of servers in the tree
D.Physical network infrastructure
E.Number of partitions and replicas
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which statement is true regarding the Priority Sync feature?
A.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting any partition.
B.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the root partition.
C.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the same partition.
D.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting parent or child
partitions.
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which statements are true regarding the placement of eDirectory objects? (Choose 2.)
A.Place application objects in their own container.
B.Don't place user objects near the top of the tree.
C.If possible, don't place objects deep within a tree.
D.If possible, don't place server objects within the same container.
E.Server objects should be placed near the user objects they are servicing.
Correct:C E

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NO.7 Which statement is true about eDirectory partitions?
A.Partitions can overlap each other.
B.A container object can reside in 2 partitions.
C.A partition provides fault tolerance for the file system.
D.Partitions are logical divisions of eDirectory that enable the database to be divided among several
servers.
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding the function-based design for the upper layers of your
eDirectory tree?
A.It is the best design type to handle future growth.
B.It should be used if there is a WAN in the network.
C.It is best for small networks that do not span more than one location.
D.It is a more difficult type of design for the upper layers of your tree.
E.It should be used if there are multiple organization objects in the tree.
Correct:C

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NO.9 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. How many subordinate references will exist
in this tree?
A.3
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.8
F.9
G.12
Correct:E

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NO.10 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A.Master
B.Read-only
C.Read/write
D.Filtered replica
E.Subordinate reference
Correct:E

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Exam Code: 50-665
Exam Name: Novell (Groupwise 6.0 Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 By default, all users in the GroupWise system can use GWIA services. You can prevent access to
GWIA services for individual users, distribution lists, post offices, or domains. Users can be members of
more than one class of service, resulting in conflicting privileges. If a user has a class membership in a
distribution list that prevents SMTP outgoing messages and has class membership in another distribution
list that allows SMTP outgoing messages, which would apply?
A.The class membership in the distribution list that was created last.
B.The class membership in the distribution list that was created first.
C.The class membership in the distribution list that offers the least access takes precedence.
D.The class membership in the distribution list that offers the greatest access takes precedence.
Answer:D

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NO.2 What tools give you information to help you understand your system performance, to troubleshoot
problems, and to configure settings for your domains and post offices? (Choose 3.)
A.Web Console
B.GWIA Monitor
C.Agent display
D.Agent log files
E.GWCHECK.EXE
F.Netware Administrator
Answer:A C D

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NO.3 What WebAccess installation provides the most security?
A.A one-server solution
B.A two-server solution
C.A one-to-many server solution
D.A single WebAccess installation
E.Multiple WebAccess installations
Answer:B

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NO.4 The link configuration screen in ConsoleOne allows you to modify or create links. What does the
following icon represent?
A.Link down
B.Indirect link
C.Gateway link
D.Undefined link
E.No rights to modify link
F.Link modified in another view
Answer:F

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NO.5 A GroupWise system can span multiple trees. What is one limitation when you are spanning trees?
A.The post office object and all objects associated with the post office must be in the same container.
B.The post office object and all objects associated with the post office must be contained in the same
replica.
C.The domain object and all objects associated with the domain (gateway, post office, users) must be in
the same tree.
D.The domain object and all objects associated with the domain (gateway, post office, users) must be in
the same partition.
E.The domain object and all objects associated with the domain (gateway, post office, users) must be in
the same container.
Answer:C

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NO.6 When you delete an eDirectory user who has a GroupWise account, you are prompted to identify what
attributes to delete. Which options can you use if the NetWare user and the GroupWise object are no
longer used? (Choose 3.)
A.Delete External Entity
B.Delete GroupWise Alias
C.Delete eDirectory Account
D.Delete GroupWise Account
E.Expire GroupWise Account
F.Delete GroupWise Nickname
Answer:C D E

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NO.7 A resource is a physical asset that can be checked out or scheduled. You can check a resources
availability with a busy search. When creating a GroupWise resource, you must assign an owner who
makes scheduling and allocation decisions. Which is a prerequisite when assigning an owner?
A.A resource owner cannot own any other objects.
B.A resource must be in the same container as the resource owner.
C.A resource must be in the same post office as the resource owner.
D.A resource must be in the same domain as the resource owner, but it can be in a different post office.
E.It makes no difference where the owner and resource objects are located as long as they are defined in
the system and are visible in the address book.
Answer:C

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NO.8 What is the correct command to load the GroupWise 6 GWPOA.NLM with the ACCT.POA startup file on
your NetWare server?
A.NGWPOA -ACCT.POA
B.GWPOA @ACCT.POA
C.GWPOA.NLM -ACCT.POA
D.load GWPOA /ACCT.POA
E.load GPOA /s ACCT.POA
Answer:B

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NO.9 Perform the following drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When you
finish, continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. Match each timeout setting with its
description.
Answer:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice6

NO.10 The agents are responsible for updating all directory store databases. What is this process called?
A.Agent replication
B.Database distribution
C.Index synchronization
D.Directory store update
E.Directory synchronization
Answer:E

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NO.11 To maintain Directory store databases, you need to use the System Maintenance options from the
Tools menu. What are the options? (Choose 5.)
A.DiskCheck
B.Rebuild Database
C.Validate Database
D.Recover Database
E.Reclaim Unused Space
F.Rebuild Indexes for Listing
G.NDS User Synchronization
H.Mailbox/Library Maintenance
Answer:B C D E F

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NO.12 By default, GroupWise 6 GWIA is configured to prevent message relaying. How does this affect
remote users?
A.It has no affect on them.
B.Remote users can't send or receive email.
C.GroupWise POP3/IMAP4 users can't receive email from GIWA but can use GWIA to send mail.
D.GroupWise POP3/IMAP4 users can receive email from GWIA but cannot use GWIA to send mail unless
access control exceptions are configured.
Answer:D

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NO.13 Where are the log files for GroupWise monitor stored by default?
A.WEB SERVER\NOVELL\LOGS
B.WEB SERVER\NOVELL\GRPWISE
C.WEB SERVER\NOVELL\MONITOR
D.WEB SERVER\NOVELL\GWMONITOR
E.WEB SERVER\NOVELL\GRPWISE\LOGS
Answer:D

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NO.14 What WebAccess configuration file contains the encryption key, IP address, and port of the default
agent? (Enter the file name only.) Answer:
A.COMMGR.CFG
Answer:A

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NO.15 Your system consists of several domain sites linked to a hub domain. There is a gateway link to a
remote site consisting of several directly linked domains. What type of link configuration is this?
A.Star
B.Ring
C.Mesh
D.Direct
E.Hybrid
F.Indirect
Answer:E

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NO.16 Perform the following point and click task. Begin by clicking the Point-and-Click button. When you finish,
continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. On the displayed graphic, click on the option you
would select in GroupWise System Maintenance when the Primary Domain database contains
out-of-date information about a secondary domain?
Answer:

NO.17 When configuring the WebAccess Agent Properties page in ConsoleOne, what is the default name for
the SNMP Community "Get" String field? Answer:
A.PUBLIC
Answer:A

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NO.18 By default, what protocol does GroupWise monitor use to communicate with your web browser?
Answer:
A.HTTP
Answer:A

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NO.19 GroupWise Monitor consists of 2 modules. What are they? (Choose 2.)
A.Workstation
B.GroupWise System
C.GroupWise Web Server
D.GroupWise Web Browser
E.GroupWise Monitor Agent
F.GroupWise Monitor Application
Answer:E F

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NO.20 Why does an external entity appear in the GroupWise address book?
A.For addressing purposes only
B.For administrative purposes only
C.So the external entity can connect to eDirectory
D.It does not display in the address book. It only appears in eDirectory
E.To allow the administrator to run Mailbox/Library Maintenance in the external entity to make sure there
is no database corruption
Answer:A

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