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Exam Code: 156-815
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert NGX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the function of a CLM?
A. Performs system backups of the Primary and Secondary MDS machines.
B. Regulates ConnectControl traffic from the NOC to remote Gateways.
C. Serves as a backup CMA for CMA-level High Availability.
D. Protects the Provider-1 system from a network attack.
E. Collects log data for managed Security Gateways.
Answer: E

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NO.2 Does the Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintain multiple customer data bases, with each customer
data base relating to a single CMA?
A. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) does not maintain customer databases or CMAs.
B. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases with each customer
database relating to multiple CMAs.
C. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases managing one CMA per
customer database.
D. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain a single customer database able to relate to one CMA.
E. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintains one customer database able to relate to multiple CMAs.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. MDS-level High Availability is configured.
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured.
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways.
D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View.
E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.4 To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window
Answer: A

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NO.5 When you set up Administrator permissions during the initial installation and configuration process,
which of the
following options is NOT available?
A. Regular Administrator (None)
B. Customer Superuser
C. Provider Superuser
D. Provider Manager
E. Customer Manager
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Managed Service Provider (MSP) is using Provider-1 to manage their customer's security policies.
What is the recommended method of securing the Provider-1 system in a NOC environment?
A. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator and the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
B. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
C. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
D. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
E. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
Answer: D

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NO.7 How many Multi Domain GUIs (MDG) can connect a Multi Domain Server (MDS) at a time?
A. 250
B. 5
C. unlimited
D. 500
E. 1
Answer: C

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NO.8 Identify the following Provider-1 configuration:
A. NOC
B. ISP
C. Standard
D. Point-of-presence
E. MSP
Answer: D

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NO.9 As a Provider-1 Administrator, you are concerned about the security of your NOC. You decide to install
a NOC firewall and hire a firewall expert to administer it. Your firewall expert wants to institute some
security measures to increase the firewall's ability to protect the NOC. One of his ideas is to hide all of the
invalid IP addresses of the CMAs, by installing a Hide NAT Policy on the firewall. Will this plan work?
A. Yes, because the CMAs use virtual IP addresses, and they require a single valid IP address to manage
remote Security Gateways.
B. No, because Hide NAT does not allow remote Gateways to connect directly to the CMAs.
C. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of 0.0.0.0.
D. No, because VPN-1 NGX does not allow Administrators to configure Hide NAT on objects with
assigned virtual IP addresses.
E. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of the leading MDS interface.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Secure communication from CMAs to the Security Gateways uses which type of encryption?
A. Traffic between CMAs and Security Gateways is not encrypted. Therefore, no encryption is used.
B. IKE with pre-shared secret
C. 256-bit SSL encryption
D. 128-bit SSL encryption
E. RSA encryption
Answer: D

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NO.11 When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
A. Type of MDS and IP address of Secondary MDS
B. Type of MDS and IP address range for virtual IP addresses
C. Type of MDS and name of leading virtual IP interface
D. Type of MDS and one-time password
E. Type of MDS and number of CMAs to be configured
Answer: C

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NO.12 How many CMAs can each MDS manage?
A. Unlimited
B. 50
C. 500
D. 250
E. 200
Answer: C

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NO.13 When configuring an MDS MLM from the MDG, which of the following are required?
A. MDS IP address and MDS type
B. MDS Name and CMA IP address range
C. MDS Name and MDS type
D. MDS Name and MDS IP address
E. MDS IP address and CMA IP address range
Answer: D

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NO.14 All Check Point Products come with a 15-day trial-period license. How many CMAs can be managed
by an MDS
Manager running with only the trial license?
A. 500
B. 1
C. 200
D. 5
E. 100
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which service does the MDG use to connect to the MDS?
A. SAM
B. CPD
C. CPMI
D. SWTP
E. SVC
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following actions occurs after the configuration of a CLM on an MDS MLM for a specific
Customer?
A. The CLM object appears in the MDG. The Administrator needs to launch a SmartDashboard for that
CLM, and configure it to retrieve the logs from the CMA's Gateway.
B. A default CLM object is created in the CMA Security Policy and is added to the list of log servers for
each configured
Security Gateway.
C. No changes appear in the CMA Security Policy, but none are required. Once the CLM of a specific
Customer is created, all logs are sent to that CLM by default. This is after the Policy is installed on the
Gateway and the master's file is edited by the system.
D. The system creates a default CLM object in the CMA Security Policy. The Administrator must then log
in to the CMA and configure the Gateway to send all logs to the CLM, by including the CLM object in its
list of log servers.
E. The system performs no default configuration tasks. The Administrator must log into the CMA, create
the CLM object,and add it to the Gateway's list of log servers.
Answer: D

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NO.17 After the trial period expires, a permanent license must be installed. To successfully install a bundle
license before the trial license expires, you must disable the trial license. Which of the following
commands will disable the trial-period license on a CMA before the license expires?
A. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 1
B. SetPNPDisable lic
C. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 0
D. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 0
E. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 1
Answer: E

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NO.18 The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP:If the Administrator intended to
install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which
of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration?
<e ip="4-1.gif"></e>
A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security Gateways Rule.
B. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the MDS.
C. Create a rule that allows the remote Gateways access to the CMAs.
D. Create a rule allowing the Primary and Secondary MDS machines located at the NOC to connect to
each other.
E. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the NOC firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.19 How many CLMs can each MDS MLM hold?
A. 225
B. unlimited
C. 50
D. 500
E. 250
Answer: E

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NO.20 The Eventia Reporter Add-on for Provider-1 does not have its own package. It is installed, removed,
enabled, and disabled using which of the following scripts?
A. SVRSetup
B. sysconfig
C. cpconfig
D. SetupUtil
E. EVRSetup
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 156-215.70
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R70)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 546 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following SSL Network Extender server-side prerequisites is NOT correct?
A.The Gateway must be configured to work with Visitor Mode.
B.There are distinctly separate access rules required for SecureClient users vs.SSL Network Extender
users.
C.To use Integrity Clientless Security (ICS), you must install the IC3 server or configuration tool.
D.The specific Security Gateway must be configured as a member of the Remote Access Community
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard
connections to the stand-alone installation of R70.After running the fw unloadlocal command, you are
able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes.Which of the following change is the most
likely cause of the block?
A.A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R70 Gateway.
B.The Allow control connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.
C.The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it
D.The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN
Gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Using the output below, what type of VPN Community is configured for fw-stlouis?
A.Meshed
B.Domain-Based
C.Star
D.Traditional
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A.fw stat
B.cpstat -gw
C.fw ver
D.tw printver
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which OPSEC server can be used to prevent users from access.ng certain Web sites?
A.LEA
B.AMON
C.UFP
D.CVP
Answer: C

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NO.6 John is the Security Administrator in his company He installs a new R70 Security Management Server
and a new R70 Gateway He now wants to establish SIC between them.After entering the activation key,
the message "Trust established" is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work
because the policy won't install and interface fetching still does not work.What might be a reason for this?
A.This must be a human error.
B.The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C.SIC does not function over the network.
D.It always works when the trust is established.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R70?
A.User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
B.User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C.Password, Management Server IP
D.Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided
A.by authentication.
B.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.
C.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.
D.via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In previous version, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection.How
is this improved in current Flows/SecureXL?
A.Only the initial SYN packet is inspected The rest are handled by IPSO
B.Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection
C.Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM
D.Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are installing a Security Management Server Your security plan calls for three administrators for this
particular server.How many can you create during installation'?
A.Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B.Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C.One
D.As many as you want
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are evaluating the configuration of a mesh VPN Community used to create a site-to-site VPN.This
graphic displays the VPN properties in this mesh Community
Which of the following would be a valid conclusion?
A.The VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption using the longest key Security
Gateway R70 supports.
B.Changing the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with from AES-128 to 3DES will increase the
encryption overhead.
C.Changing the setting Perform key exchange encryption with 3DES to DES will enhance the VPN
Community's security, and reduce encryption overhead.
D.Change the data-integrity settings for this VPN CommunitybecauseMD5 is incompatible with AES.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?
A.Keep all connections
B.Keep data connections
C.Reset all connections
D.Re-match connections
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is a Consolidation Policy?
A.The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.
B.The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the
SmartReporter database.
C.The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.
D.A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are you required to do before running upgrade__ export?
A.Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.
B.Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server
C.Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
D.Close all GUI clients
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.15 Which opponent functions as the Internet Certificate Authority for R70?
A.Security Gateway
B.Management Server
C.Policy Server
D.SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R70
Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.
A.SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate
B.SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor
C.SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate.SmartView Status
D.Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI
Answer: B

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NO.17 If you experience unwanted traffic from a specific IP address, how can you stop it most quickly?
A.Check anti-spoofing settings
B.Configure a rule to block the address
C.Create a SAM rule
D.Activate an IPS protection
Answer: C

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NO.18 Your R70 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2003 Server You
decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security
Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc )
What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A.1.Create a database revision control backup using the SmartDashboard
2.Create a compressed archive of the *FWDlR*\ conf and FWDiR8\lib directories and copy them to
another networked machine.
3.Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot.
4.Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R70 CD.
5.Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to
overwrite existing files.
B.1.Download the latest upgrade_export utility and run it from a c; \temp directory to export the
configuration into a .tgz file
2.Skip any upgarde__verification warnings since you are not upgrading
3.Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine
4.Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot
5.Use the R70 CD-ROM to select the uuarade import ootion to import the confiauration
C.1.Download the latest upqrade_expoct utility and run it from a \temp directory to export the
configuration into a .tgz file
2.Perform any requested upgcade_veri¡êic tion sugested steps
3.Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
4.Use SmartUpdate to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot
5.Transfer the tgz file back to the local \temp
6.Run upgrade__import to import the configuration
D.1.Insert the F70 CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration using the latest upgrade
utilities
2.Perform any requested upgrade_verification suggested steps and re-export the configuration if needed
3.Save the export " tgz file to a local c: \temp directory
4.Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
5.Install again using the R70 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot
6.Run upgrade_import to import the configuration
Answer: C

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NO.19 In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from
Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties > FireWall tab.In order for the Security
Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server
to communicate to the Security Gateway on port_____.
A.256
B.80
C.900
D.259
Answer: A

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NO.20 Your company's Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can
use any services.The Gateway does not allow the Telnet service to itself from any location.How would you
configure authentication on the Gateway? With a:
A.Client Authentication for fully automatic sign on
B.Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900
C.Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign on
D.Session Authentication rule
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of following uses the same key to decrypt as it does encrypt?
A.Asymmetric encryption
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Certificate-based encryption
D.Dynamic encryption
Answer: B

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NO.22 Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys.Which of the
following options will end the intruder s access after the next Phase 2 exchange occurs?
A.Perfect Forward Secrecy
B.SHA1 Hash Completion
C.Phase 3 Key Revocation
D.M05 Hash Completion
Answer: A

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NO.23 You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet You create a
manual Static NAT rule as follows:
Source: Any
Destination: web_public_IP
Service: Any
Translated Source: original
Translated Destination: web_private_IP
Service: original
web_publicIP" is the node Object that represents the public IP address of the new Web
server."web_privateIP" is the node object that represents the new Web site's private P address You
enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT.
When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet, you see the error 'page cannot be displayed"
Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?
A.There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the private IP address of
the Web server.
B.There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.
C.There is an ARP entry on the Gateway but the settings Merge Manual proxy ARP and Automatic ARP
configuration are enabled in Global Properties.The Security Gateway ignores manual ARP entries.
D.There is no ARP table entry for the public IP address of the protected Web server
Answer: A

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NO.24 You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view
the blocked addresses'?
A.Run f wm blockedview.
B.In SmartView Monitor, select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C.In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant
Security Gateway from the list
D.In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab.and the actively blocked connections displays
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which rule is responsible for the installation failure?
A.Rule 4
B.Rule 3
C.Rule 5
D.Rule 6
Answer: A

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NO.26 You are trying to save a custom log query in R70 SmartView Tracker, but getting the following error
"Could not save 'query-name' (Error Database is Read Only).
Which of the following is a likely explanation for this?
A.You have read-only rights to the Security Management Server catabase.
B.You do not have the explicit right to save a custom query in your administrator permission profile under
SmartConsole customization
C.You do not have OS write permissions on the local SmartView Tracker PC in order to save the custom
query locally
D.Another administrator is currently connected to the Security Management Server with read/write
permissions which impacts your ability to save custom log queries to the Security Management Server.
Answer: A

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NO.27 You are installing your R70Security Gateway.Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A.Crossbeam
B.Solaris
C.Windows
D.IPSO
Answer: B

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NO.28 External commands can be included in SmartView Tracker via the menu Tools > Custom
Commands.The Security Management Server is running under SecurePlatform, and the GUI is on a
system running Microsoft Windows.How do you run the command, traceroute on an IP address?
A.Use the program GUIdbedit to add the command traceroute to the properties of the Security
Management Server.
B.Go to the menu Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Windows command tracert.exe to the list
C.There is no possibility to expand the three pre-defined options ping, whois, and Nslookup
D.Go to the menu.Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Linux command traceroute to the list
Answer: B

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NO.29 A digital signature:
A.Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet
B.Automatically exchanges shared keys
C.Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message
D.Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following are authentication methods that Security Gateway R70 uses to validate
connection attempts? Select the response below includes that includes the MOST complete list of valid
authentication methods:
A.Proxied, User, Dynamic, Session
B.Connection, User, Client
C.User, Client.Session
D.Connection, Proxied, Session
Answer: C

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NO.1 Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change orders,
and check order status. You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web
servers were protected from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration testing
indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. You have checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab,
and installed the Security Policy. What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?
A.Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.
B.Check the "Products > Web Server" box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.
C.Configure resource objects as Web servers, and use them in the rules allowing HTTP traffic to the Web
servers.
D.The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
Answer:C

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NO.2 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A.None, all versions require a license upgrade
B.VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
C.VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
D.VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
Answer:C

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NO.3 Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have
created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Why?
A.Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
B.You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
C.You checked the "cache password on desktop" option in Global Properties.
D.Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
Answer:B

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NO.4 When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues
need to be considered? (1) Each member must have a unique source IP address (2) Every interface on
each member requires a unique IP address (3) All VTIs going to the same remote peer must have the
same name. (4) Custer IP addresses are required.
A.2 & 3
B.1, 3, & 4
C.1, 2, 3 & 4
D.1, 2, and 4
Answer:C

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NO.5 You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log.
How do you view Security Administrator activity?
A.SmartView Tracker in Active Mode
B.SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
C.SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs on the
SmartCenter Server's Operating System.
D.SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
Answer:B

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NO.6 When configuring VPN High Availability (HA) with MEP, which of the following is correct?
A.The decision on which MEP Security Gateway to use is made on the remote gateway's side (non-MEP
side).
B.MEP Gateways must be managed by the same SmartCenter Server.
C.MEP VPN Gateways cannot be geographically separated machines.
D.If one Gateway fails, the synchronized connection fails over to another Gateway and the connection
continues.
Answer:A

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NO.7 Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports
in Eventia Reporter?
A.In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the VPN-1 Security Gateway object
B.In Eventia Reporter, under Express > Network Activity
C.In Eventia Reporter, under Standard > Custom
D.In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
Answer:A

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NO.8 Match the remote-access VPN Connection mode features with their descriptions:
A.A 3, B 4, C 2, D 1
B.A 2, B 3, C 4, D 1
C.A 2, B 4, C 3, D 1
D.A 1, B 3, C 4, D 2
Answer:B

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NO.9 Match each of the following commands to their correct function. Each command only has one function
listed.
A.C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
B.C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C.C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D.C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
Answer:A

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NO.10 Where do you enable popup alerts for SmartDefense settings that have detected suspicious activity?
A.In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Alerts
B.In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Custom Commands
C.In SmartDashboard, edit the Gateway object, select SmartDefense > Alerts
D.In SmartDashboard, select Global Properties > Log and Alert > Alert Commands
Answer:A

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NO.11 A security audit has determined that your unpatched web application server is revealing the fact that it
accesses a SQL server. You believe that you have enabled the proper SmartDefense setting but would
like to verify this fact using SmartView Tracker. Which of the following entries confirms the proper blocking
of this leaked information to an attacker?
A."Fingerprint Scrambling: Changed [SQL] to [Perl]"
B."HTTP response spoofing: remove signature [SQL Server]"
C."Concealed HTTP response [SQL Server]. (Error Code WSE0160003)"
D."ASCII Only Response Header detected: SQL"
Answer:C

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NO.12 Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the name and timestamp of the
Security Policy currently installed on a firewall module?
A.fw ver
B.fw stat
C.fw ctl pstat
D.cpstat fwd
Answer:B

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NO.13 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.User Name, Password, SmartCenter Server IP
B.User Name, SmartCenter Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
C.Password, SmartCenter Server IP, LDAP Server
D.Password, SmartCenter Server IP
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which of the following would NOT be a reason for beginning with a fresh installation of VPN-1 NGX R65,
instead of upgrading a previous version to VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.You see a more logical way to organize your rules and objects.
B.You want to keep your Check Point configuration.
C.Your Security Policy includes rules and objects whose purpose you do not know.
D.Objects and rules' naming conventions have changed over time.
Answer:B

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NO.15 In ClusterXL, which of the following are defined by default as critical devices?
A.Security Policy status
B.fw.d
C.protect.exe
D.PROT_SRV.EXE
Answer:A

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NO.16 When a user selects to allow Hotspot, SecureClient modifies the Desktop Security Policy and/or Hub
Mode routing to enable Hotspot registration. Which of the following is NOT true concerning this
modification?
A.The modification is restricted by time.
B.The number of IP addresses accessed is not restricted.
C.IP addresses accessed during registration are recorded.
D.Ports accessed during registration are recorded.
Answer:B

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NO.17 How do you recover communications between your SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway if you
"lock" yourself out via a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A.cpstop
B.fw unload policy
C.fw delete all.all
D.fw unloadlocal
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which operating system is not supported by SecureClient?
A.MacOS X
B.Windows XP SP2
C.Windows 2003 Professional
D.IPSO 3.9
Answer:D

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NO.19 How do you block some seldom-used FTP commands, such as CWD, and FIND from passing through
the Gateway?
A.Use FTP Security Server settings in SmartDefense.
B.Add the restricted commands to the aftpd.conf file in the SmartCenter Server.
C.Configure the restricted FTP commands in the Security Servers screen of the Global properties.
D.Enable FTP Bounce checking in SmartDefense.
Answer:A

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NO.20 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A.Eventia Reporter Client
B.SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
C.SmartCenter Server
D.Eventia Reporter Server
Answer:B

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NO.1 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default
port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which code calls a web form?
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B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B

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normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which command do you use to open the OneClick for eHealth console only?
A. ehealth -h
B. ehealth -oce
C. ehealth -once
D. ehealth -motif
Answer: B

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NO.2 In Report Center, which users are considered super users.?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which report type can you drill down to from an At-a-Glance report?
A. TopN
B. Trend
C. Health
D. Service Level
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about using Oracle with CA eHealth is TRUE?
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B. All versions of CA eHealth now use the Oracle double-byte software.
C. A database can be on a mapped or mounted drive with high-speed connectivity.
D. You can use Oracle or other after-market tools to back up the CA eHealth database.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Before you can run custom Health and Service Level Reports, you need to make sure that: (Choose
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A. Report log files have been updated.
B. Service Profiles have been configured.
C. Groups and Groups Lists arepopulated.
D. User Permissions have been configured.
E. The Database is set up and is operational.
F. Correct report definitions have been created.
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.1 You have completed the build for a new application and have had it running for two days. You
decide to
add monitoring capabilities to your application. After dragging a MON appliance to the grid, you use
balloon connectors to connect the mon interface of all your appliances to the mon interface of the
MON
appliance. Then you click the Monitor button. However, the monitoring function does not work.
Before you
make a second attempt at running the monitoring function, what do you need to do?
A. Configure a Monitoring Policy.
B. Save and restart your application.
C. Save your application and do no more.
D. Reconstruct the application, because you cannot add a MON appliance after an application has
already been running.
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you are using a Windows computer, how do you access a Virtual Dedicated Server (VDS) for
the
Linux operating system?
A. Remote Desktop
B. Login (graphic) option
C. Secure Shell (SSH) from the PuTTY tool
D. Cygwin bash using the following command: windows cmd.exe shell
Answer: C

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NO.3 WS_API provides a web service interface to: (Choose two)
A. Existing business services on the grid.
B. The command-line interface (CLI)-based controller of the CA AppLogic grid.
C. One or multiple CA AppLogic grids, through a Representational State Transfer (REST)-based
service.
D. Large pools of virtualized infrastructure within each Virtual Data Center (VDC), which you can
programmatically control.
Answer: A

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NO.4 CA AppLogic virtualizes access to
Which types of peripheral devices? (Choose two)
A. Serial ports
B. Tape drives
C. Block storage devices
D. Network interface cards (NICs)
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which appliance is a port switch that is used most often to forward/separate administrative
traffic?
A. PS8
B. HALB
C. WEB5
D. INSSL
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 0B0-106
Exam Name: BEA (BEA SOA Foundations Exam)
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Total Q&A: 252 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following provides the best definition of SOA?
A. SOA is a software engineering paradigm that prescribes the creation of loosely coupled interfaces
between the consumers of functionality and
the applications that represent that functionality.
B. SOA is a collection of technologies like enterprise service bus and Web Service management that
facilitate the delivery of enterprise
functionality as a set of services.
C. SOA is an IT strategy that organizes the discrete functions contained in enterprise applications into
interoperable, standards-based services
that can be combined and reused quickly to meet business needs.
D. SOA is a collection of standards, best practices, architectural models, and software development
methodologies, principally based on Web
Services, which may be incorporated into enterprise software engineering to provide information
technology to an enterprise in a
standards-based way.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The aims of an SOA Program include: (Choose all that apply.)
A. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that functionality is delivered and deployed
for use by the entire enterprise.
B. The delivery of enterprise architecture that facilitates the sharing of functionality as services in a way
that is measurable and manageable and
meets operational goals.
C. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that enterprise information systems are
coded.
D. Providing accountability to the business for the translation of business requirements into information
technology.
E. The synthesis of business strategy and goals and the delivery cycles of projects into a roadmap for the
creation and deployment of shared
services.
F. The development of any service that is to be delivered to the enterprise.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.3 What is the purpose of a Reference Architecture?
A. To provide a frame of reference for discussion of enterprise architecture concerns.
B. To provide linkage between the architecture of a given enterprise and certain of the enterprise
architecture frameworks, such as TOGAF or
Zachmann.
C. To define the reference material from which answers to questions about enterprise architecture may be
drawn.
D. To provide a comprehensive enterprise architecture that constitutes the correct, best practices-based
approach to constructing a modern
enterprise.
Answer: A

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NO.4 How is SOA different from previous approaches involving the sharing of information assets? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. SOA is an enterprise architecture approach that does not specify a given technology or vendor
solution.
B. SOA embodies the concept of run-time, rather than development-time or code level reuse.
C. SOA provides detailed specifications meant to provide a maximum of assurance of interoperability
among supporting technologies and vendor
solutions.
D. The basis of SOA in XML and other standards provides true platform agnosticism.
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 When is SOA NOT an appropriate strategy? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When the applications in a given enterprise are necessarily stand-alone, and thus would not benefit
from a shared services approach.
B. When the political boundaries among lines of business and their related IT functions are
insurmountable, making sharing of functionality as
services impossible.
C. When the information systems in a given enterprise are homogeneous from a technological
perspective and thus the sharing of functionality
among them is essentially built into their construction.
D. When enterprise business processes are widely distributed across the information systems for
separate lines of business and are embedded
in the integration among those systems.
E. When application lifecycles are very short, and thus the effort to share functionality among them cannot
be offset by gains from reuse.
F. When a given enterprise has dozens or hundreds of information systems for which the exposing of
functionality from those systems as
services would be an extremely complex operation.
Answer: ACE

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Exam Code: 9L0-964
Exam Name: Apple (Final Cut Pro 6 Level 1 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which Video Filters category contains the Broadcast Safe filter?(Select the best answer.)
A. Channel
B. Color Correction
C. Image Control
D. QuickTime
E. Video
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does the visual indicator (overlay) at the bottom-left of the Canvas represent?(Select the best
answer.)
A. The first frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
B. The last frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
C. End of a Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the four modifier keys?(Select the FOUR best answers.)
A. Tab
B. Shift
C. Command
D. Option
E. Control
Answer: BCDE

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NO.4 Which tab displays a clip's Opacity parameter?(Select the best answer.)
A. Video
B. Controls
C. Filters
D. Motion
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the result of applying the above to an audio clip?(Select the best answer.)
A. The lowest dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
B. The average dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
C. The peak dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What menu command lets you ingest files, such as graphics, from your hard drive?(Select the best
answer.)
A. Import
B. Export
C. Log and Capture
D. Send To
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which clip would be adjusted if you dragged left?(Select the best answer.)
A. Clip in Track V1
B. Clip in Track V2
C. Clip in Track V3
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where are Voice Over tool recordings saved?(Select the best answer.)
A. Audio Renders
B. Autosave Vault
C. Capture Scratch
D. Render Files
Answer: C

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NO.9 The above icon may represent ________.(Select all that apply.)
A. an offline clip
B. a clip whose media file you recently renamed in the Finder
C. a clip whose media file you recently relocated in the Finder
D. a clip that does not contain linked audio
E. a clip that has been logged but not captured
Answer: ABCE

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NO.10 You want to output an HDV sequence to HDV tape. Which output option should you select?(Select the
best answer.)
A. Edit to Tape
B. Print to Video
C. QuickTime Movie
D. QuickTime Conversion
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which tool will let you perform the edit shown above with a single mouse drag?(Select the best
answer.)
A. Ripple Tool
B. Roll Tool
C. Slide Tool
D. Slip Tool
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are ways that you can launch Final Cut Pro?(Select all that apply.)
A. Double-click the Final Cut Pro icon in the Applications folder.
B. Single-click the Final Cut Pro icon in the Dock.
C. Double-click a Final Cut Pro project file.
Answer: ABC

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NO.13 What does the visual indicator (overlay) along the left side of the Viewer represent?(Select the best
answer.)
A. The first frame of a clip's media.
B. The last frame of a clip's media.
C. Start of a Sequence
D. End of a Sequence
Answer: A

Apple   9L0-964   9L0-964 exam simulations

NO.14 What is a standard audio CD's sample rate?(Select the best answer.)
A. 24 kHz
B. 32 kHz
C. 44.1 kHz
D. 48 kHz
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which THREE filters create a composite effect?(Select the THREE best answers.)
A. Mask Shape
B. Chroma Keyer
C. Insect Eye
D. Gaussian Blur
E. Eight-Point Garbage Matte
Answer: ABE

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